MCQ Quiz

1. How would you assess the repayment risk associated with a company with seasonal sales compared to one that has steadier sales throughout the year, all other things being equal?

a) The seasonal business will have lower repayment risk.

b) The seasonal business will have higher repayment risk.

c) None of the above.

d) Both businesses have the same level of risk.

2. Tea-Shop Ltd. finance their new store leases using 2/3rd debt and 1/3rd equity. Which of these events would reduce the risk for the lending institution?

a) Reduction in costs of tea.

b) Increase in store maintenance costs.

c) Decrease in credit provided by suppliers.

d) Decrease in store sales with a constant operating margin.

3. You see a news item that the Government has increased the minimum support price of sugarcane. Sugar production is expected to exceed the demand during the year and globally also there is abundant supply. What could be the implication sugar companies?

a) There would be excess inventory of sugar cane with the sugar companies.

b) No implication for the sugar companies. They would push their output to their wholesalers.

c) No major implication. The companies will offload their production when prices improve.

d) This could have serious adverse implications for the sugar companies’ profitability and may lead to losses. In case the companies hold on to their output, it will have significant carrying costs which again would affect the profitability.

4. Best Bakers LLP bake and supply breads for retailers. In looking to expand their capacity to support a growing market, which form of financing would be most appropriate and why?

a) Extending its existing overdraft facility because this type of funding provides maximum flexibility required due to the uncertain operating conditions that the expansion will create.

b) Raising a new term-loan that can be secured against the new assets because this type of funding will provide secure financing over the operational life of the capital asset.

c) Raising new equity from shareholders because this type of funding is both long-term and relatively inexpensive compared to other forms of financing.

d) Reducing its operating cycle to generate greater operating cash flows because this type of funding is free financing and will maximise the returns that the new assets will generate for shareholders.

5. Describe the potential structural subordination risk of lending to a holding company.

a) The holding company may have non-consolidated financial statements.

b) The holding company may have unrealistic projected revenues.

c) The holding company may have dated documentation.

d) The holding company may have limited operating assets.

6. Under what scenario is having insurance most likely to have a positive effect?

a) Recession.

b) Political turmoil.

c) Earthquake.

d) Economic boom.

7. What is meant by the term "amount owing" on a credit agency report?

a) The date or amount of time since the latest sale was made.

b) The normal terms of sale extended by the supplier.

c) The greatest amount of credit extended.

d) The debt due by a business at the time of the survey and the status of that amount (current, amount past due).

8. Why is it preferable to make the disbursement of a term loan directly in favour of a supplier?

a) To whom the disbursement is made is immaterial.

b) This is only logical.

c) Direct disbursement to the supplier would facilitate quicker supply of equipment.

d) This is one of the ways to ensure that the disbursed funds are used for the purpose for which the term loan is sanctioned.

9. In a UCA cash flow statement, what is the calculation for "change in cash"?

a) Financing Surplus (Requirement) + Total External Financing.

b) Net Income - Total External Financing.

c) Financing Surplus (Requirement) - Total External Financing.

d) Net Income + Total External Financing.

10. For a lender assessing credit risk, what business is likely to have a credit agency report with the most meaningful information?

a) A non-borrowing small business.

b) A medium business with many suppliers.

c) A non-borrowing large business.

d) A small business with few suppliers.

11. What is the most important constraint in getting a pricing on a loan which is fully in accordance with the risk assessment?

a) Bank’s pricing policy.

b) Profitability calculation.

c) Competitive scenario, since competition places a ceiling on pricing which may be acceptable to the customer.

d) Loan structuring.

12. Which statement about the cash flow coverage ratio is not correct?

a) It uses accrual income values from the profit and loss statement.

b) It is a broader metric than the interest coverage ratio.

c) It is an indicator of the ability to pay interest, dividends and scheduled debt payments.

d) It focuses on internal cash flow.

13. Which statement is incorrect with respect to the legal documentation signed as part of the corporate debt restructuring (CDR) process?

a) If the debtor agrees, the period of limitation can be extended beyond the standstill period.

b) The Debtor Creditor Agreement is part of the Standstill Agreement.

c) The standstill agreement does not apply to criminal action.

d) The Debtor Creditor Agreement and the Inter Creditor Agreement are signed at almost the same time, at the beginning of the Corporate Debt Restructuring (CDR) process.

14. Under Section 186 of the Companies Act, 2013, loan and investment by company, a company:

a) Can lend money to any other company.

b) Can give a guarantee for a loan taken by any other company.

c) Can buy the securities of another company only to the extent of 60% of its own capital and free reserves.

d) Cannot do any of the above.

15. Which of the following is correct with respect to a banker’s right of lien?

a) Ownership of goods is transferred to the bank.

b) Possession of the goods remains with the borrower.

c) The right of lien is subject to the law of limitation.

d) A general lien converts to a specific lien if the bank appropriates the lien towards a specific debt of the borrower.

16. Which critical skill for executives seeks to rally people in the business to further the enterprise's mission, accomplish its plans, earn the trust of colleagues and customers, and demonstrate and foster commitment to the business and its goals?

a) Leadership.

b) Commitment.

c) Communication.

d) Knowledge.

17. You are examining a loan request for a short-term loan to cover working capital requirements. On examining the financial statements you establish that sales have fallen, the business has an operating loss, it has negative operating cash flow and there is a sharp increase in payable days outstanding. You establish that this is high risk loan application. How should you proceed with your financial analysis?

a) You need not do further work with the financial statements and can reject the loan application.

b) You should examine the financial statements more carefully to see if there are any off balance sheet liabilities that may increase the level of risk.

c) You should examine the financial statements more carefully to see if there are any assets that might be sold to finance the loan.

d) You should examine the financial statements more carefully to see if there are any opportunities to turn around the business.

18. Is it possible to compare the current inventory held by two different companies to determine which is more efficient in managing its working capital?

a) Yes, as current inventory levels is a measure that provides a direct comparative value between companies.

b) Yes, as current inventory held is the prime driver of working capital levels.

c) No, for a meaningful comparison the cost of sales needs to be used.

d) No, for a meaningful comparison the time taken to close inventory for each company needs to be worked out and used instead.

19. What is the role of credit rating agencies in the Indian market?

a) They issue ratings that can help Indian companies raise funds from investors.

b) They provide an independent and locally based assessment of the credit quality of all bonds issued by the Indian corporates.

c) They provide competition to the international rating agencies.

d) Ratings from all Indian ratings agencies can be used by banks when undertaking capital calculations for credit risk.

20. Why are the two methods of lending recommended by the Tandon Committee still being used today?

a) These methods of lending implicitly set minimum liquidity standards by insisting on a minimum level of funding of current assets from long-term sources and so continue to be a reliable analytic tool.

b) Banks have not reviewed their lending criteria but prefer to use methods that they are familiar with.

c) The two methods provide a reasonable analysis of risk and there is no reason to change them.

d) There has been no update to the recommendations of the Tandon committee so the original methods continue to be used.

21. Which statement provides a correct illustration of the matching principle?

a) Expenses of a period are matched to the revenues that they generate.

b) The total value of debit entries will equal the total value of credit entries.

c) Total assets are matched to total liabilities plus equity.

d) Revenue of one period equals costs plus dividends of the same period.

22. What factors influence the values that appear in a credit migration or transition matrix?

a) The number of times that a corporate’s graded credit is upgraded and downgraded.

b) The final and initial ratings for the corporate at the start and end of the agreed time horizon.

c) The number of rating bands that a rating is upgraded over the selected time horizon.

d) The number of rating bands that a bank uses in its rating scale.

23. Who is responsible for determining the quality of financial statements (for example, by defining the level of materiality and depth of disclosure)?

a) Regulators (such as SEBI).

b) Standards setting bodies (such as NACAS).

c) Auditors.

d) Management of the borrowing entity.

24. Which activity would cause the short-term financing gap of a company to decrease?

a) Renegotiating a revolving credit facility on more favourable terms.

b) Implementing a just-in-time inventory management system that minimizes the levels of raw material inventories required to be held.

c) Purchasing machinery to raise production capacity and meet increased demand.

d) Securing supply arrangements by placing suppliers on new single source contracts with penalties for late delivery of goods.

25. The objective of cost analysis in the pricing decision process is:

a) To ensure that the bank’s costing is optimum.

b) To estimate the floor on the pricing below which the loan is financially not desirable.

c) To get into a better negotiating position with the customer.

d) To ensure tight cost control.

26. Which statement is incorrect with respect to the Debt Recovery Tribunals (DRTs)?

a) Only banks and financial institutions can approach the DRT for recovery of their dues.

b) Decisions of the DRT can be appealed to the Debt Recovery Appellate Tribunal.

c) Orders passed by recovery officers are judicial in nature.

d) It is headed by a presiding officer who is of the same rank as a High Court Judge.

27. What service do local rating agencies provide for investors in India?

a) Confirmation that an issuer will meet its financial obligations.

b) Research and opinions that address information asymmetry.

c) Information that ensures that issues are priced correctly.

d) They ensure that there is a liquid market for debt instruments once issued.

28. All else being equal, what business would typically carry the greatest credit risk?

a) The one wherein liabilities are four times as great as capital.

b) The one wherein liabilities are less than tangible net worth.

c) The one wherein liabilities and tangible net worth are equal.

d) The one wherein capital is four times as great as liabilities.

29. Which statement is incorrect with respect to wilful defaulters?

a) Wilful defaulters of Rs. 1 million or more must be reported to the CIC with RBI.

b) A borrower who has interest or principal overdue for more than 90 days is not necessarily a wilful defaulter.

c) A case where the borrower loses diverted funds and makes a full disclosure of the diversion and loss is still a case of wilful default.

d) An individual guarantor does not automatically become a wilful defaulter when the original borrower is identified as a wilful defaulter.

30. In a UCA cash flow statement, what is the correct calculation for operating income?

a) Net Sales - Cost of Goods Sold - Operating Expenses.

b) Net Sales - Cost of Goods Sold + Operating Expenses.

c) Net Profit + Cost of Goods Sold - Operating Expenses.

d) Net Profit + Cost of Goods Sold + Operating Expenses.

31. What event would most likely have a neutral impact on the trade receivables days?

a) Billings are computerised.

b) Recession.

c) Sales increase.

d) Competitor terms lengthen.

32. What step in the loan decision process provides early detection of conditions to indicate that business performance is lower than assumed in projections?

a) Grade the risk.

b) Structure covenants.

c) Gather data.

d) Identify credit enhancements.

33. Which statement concerning industry risk is correct?

a) Emerging industries tend to be less risky than mature industries.

b) Growing industries tend to be less risky than emerging industries.

c) Declining industries tend to be less risky than growing industries.

d) Declining industries tend to be less risky than mature industries.

34. Which one of the following factors are taken into account when computing both EaD and LGD?

a) The amount initially advanced to the borrower.

b) The realisable value of the security.

c) The probability that the borrower may default.

d) The amount outstanding from the borrower at the point of default.

35. Why should the stock statement include separate details of factored invoices?

a) It would reveal how much less margin the borrower has to contribute for working capital since margins on factored invoices are significantly lower than those prescribed by banks.

b) It would reveal the extent of lending business being lost by the bank to the factoring company.

c) It would prevent double financing of the same receivables.

d) It would reveal the extent of low-risk receivables being diverted to the factor since factoring companies discount receivables only from highly rated debtors.

36. Should the bank consider the client’s past record of bank guarantees being invoked when deciding whether to grant a new bank guarantee?

a) No, past behaviour of the client is no indication of future behaviour.

b) Yes, the client’s previous credit history and business behaviour should be considered as well as all other relevant factors.

c) Yes, and additionally the bank should be reluctant to offer a new bank guarantee to a client with previous history of having bank guarantees invoked.

d) No, the historical data is not relevant in considering the request for a bank guarantee.

37. The product or service being marketed has achieved some degree of acceptance and sales levels begin to increase. Profits and cash flow also improve, and the ability to support and repay liabilities begins to develop. Industry status risk is moderate and there is a neutral level of overall risk. Which life cycle stage does this paragraph describe?

a) Maturity.

b) Growth.

c) Start-up.

d) Adolescence.

38. Assessing management's capacity for business includes which step?

a) Make sure operating plans clearly come from the top down.

b) Learn about and rely on management's capacity and experience to develop plans and carry them out.

c) Quickly review tools used by management to develop plans.

d) Evaluate management's credit risk skills in developing and implementing business plans.

39. Which step in the ''management cycle'' comes after overseeing the use of resources and monitoring the success of plans?

a) Adjusting plans, resources, and methodologies as necessary to ensure that goals are achieved and needs are met.

b) Aggregating and organising resources to implement plans.

c) Developing plans to meet goals.

d) Assessing business needs.

40. What regulation level is most likely to lead to a decline in market (industry and business) risk?

a) Significant.

b) Moderate.

c) Insignificant.

d) Unknown.

41. The usance period of LCs should be in line with the overall working capital cycle of the customer because:

a) This ensures that no devolvement takes place.

b) A longer usance period would mean additional credit period which implies availability of more funds than needed to run the working capital cycle. This could lead to diversion of funds.

c) LC is essentially a working capital facility.

d) A longer usance period would mean lesser credit period which implies availability of lesser funds than needed to run the working capital cycle. This would constrain the unit’s operations and lead to a shortfall in performance.

42. What event is most likely to have a neutral impact on both the operating expense percentage ratio and profit?

a) Administrative staff reduced.

b) Office becomes computerised.

c) Rent increases.

d) Recession.

43. What factor is most likely to increase the bargaining power of suppliers?

a) Suppliers lack the ability to integrate forward.

b) Switching costs are low.

c) Many competitive products or substitutes are available.

d) Few alternative suppliers are available.

44. What sources are available to a company to finance an on-balance sheet loan?

a) Cash in the business or through liquidation of assets.

b) Cash from operations generated during the period when the investment is paid for.

c) A term bank financing.

d) All of the above.

45. All else being equal, what business would typically have the highest loan return?

a) The one wherein liabilities are less than tangible net worth.

b) The one wherein liabilities and tangible net worth are equal.

c) The one wherein liabilities are four times as great as capital.

d) The one wherein capital is three times as great as liabilities.

46. What is the definition of Common Equity Capital?

a) The highest quality component of capital.

b) A bank's gone-concern or supplementary capital.

c) Loss absorbing capital that can be converted to common shares or written down in the event of substantial losses.

d) A bank's pure or concern capital.

47. What statement concerning the impact of foreign competition on debt repayment is most accurate?

a) High foreign competition leads to decreased cash flow and decreased ability to repay debt as scheduled.

b) High foreign competition leads to increased cash flow and increased ability to repay debt as scheduled.

c) High foreign competition leads to increased cash flow and decreased ability to repay debt as scheduled.

d) High foreign competition leads to decreased cash flow and increased ability to repay debt as scheduled.

48. Which item would be correctly classified as a current asset?

a) A warehouse used to store finished goods.

b) A financial asset held for dividend income.

c) Machinery bought in the last 12 months.

d) A receivable due from a customer in 9 months.

49. In the corporate governance process, who is responsible for determining overall business strategy by hiring managers and staff to help operate the business?

a) Shareholders.

b) Board of directors.

c) Executive officers.

d) Regulators.

50. What determines the number of operating cycles that a business will have?

a) Significantly different products and markets will result in multiple operating cycles.

b) There will be a separate operating cycle for each business location.

c) Each supplier and customer will have their own operating cycle.

d) Accounting regulations will determine the number of operating cycles.

51. Which statement about risk drivers is most accurate?

a) They have great impact on what balance sheet amounts, but not profit and loss statement amounts, will be in the future.

b) They have great impact on what balance sheet and profit and loss statement amounts will be in the future.

c) They have little impact on what profit and loss statement and balance sheet amounts will be in the future.

d) They have great impact on what profit and loss statement amounts, but not balance sheet amounts, will be in the future.

52. What are the four areas of the financial risk assessment process?

a) Cash flow, market (industry and business) risk, projections, and financial statement data and notes.

b) Market (industry and business) risk, cash flow, financial ratios, and financial statement data and notes.

c) Financial ratios, projections, cash flow, and market (industry and business) risk.

d) Projections, cash flow, financial ratios, and financial statement data and notes.

53. During which stage will management begin delaying payments to creditors?

a) Cash crunch stage.

b) Cash crisis stage.

c) Cash concern stage.

d) Cash creation stage.

54. What type of question is designed to encourage a more expansive response?

a) Reflective question.

b) Direct question.

c) Open-ended question.

d) Rhetorical question.

55. What account is typically included in the financial statements of a service business?

a) Inventory (stock) – finished goods.

b) Trade payables.

c) Inventory (stock) – work in progress.

d) Cost of goods sold.

56. What risk has recently emerged as an important factor for funding projects?

a) Compliance with environmental guidelines.

b) The technical know-how of the company to implement change brought about by the new project.

c) The importance of management competence to bring the project to a close.

d) Government policies governing the industry of the borrower.

57. You come across information that USFDA has taken some action against one of your pharmaceutical clients. You want to ascertain the details of the matter. Which would be the best source to obtain this information?

a) RBI list of wilful defaulters.

b) Internet search for related news items and website of USFDA.

c) CRILC.

d) ECGC caution list.

58. What is the relationship between the peak selling season and repayment risk?

a) The greater the magnitude of the peak or the shorter the duration of the peak selling season, the lower the repayment risk.

b) The greater the magnitude of the peak, the higher the repayment risk and the shorter the duration of the peak selling season, the lower the repayment risk.

c) The greater the magnitude of the peak, the lower the repayment risk and the shorter the duration of the peak selling season, the higher the repayment risk.

d) The greater the magnitude of the peak or the shorter the duration of the peak selling season, the higher the repayment risk.

59. All else being equal, what business is most likely to fail?

a) A borrower with an individual manager responsible for all of the key administrative responsibilities.

b) A borrower with an individual manager responsible for three of the five key administrative responsibilities.

c) A borrower with an individual manager responsible for four of the five key administrative responsibilities.

d) A borrower with an individual manager responsible for two of the five key administrative responsibilities.

60. Which of these is NOT a purpose of credit administration?

a) Ensure timely recovery of interest.

b) Ensure recovery of the principal’s instalments in accordance with the approved repayment schedule.

c) Ensure that the drawings in the FBWC account do not exceed the allocated drawing power.

d) Credit risk assessment of the customer.

61. Why is it important to follow the steps involved in assessing the working capital?

a) By following the steps, the credit officer and the relationship manager will know that everything has been done properly.

b) By following the steps, the proper paper trail is left for audit to follow.

c) By following the steps, the company will know that it is being treated fairly.

d) By following the steps, a clear picture of risks is built up allowing an informed credit decision to be made.

62. How do the bargaining power of buyers and suppliers affect risk in the marketplace?

a) The more significant the bargaining power of buyers and suppliers, the smaller the risk in the marketplace.

b) The more significant the bargaining power of buyers and suppliers, the greater the risk in the marketplace.

c) The more significant the bargaining power of buyers and the less significant the bargaining power of suppliers, the greater the risk in the marketplace.

d) The more significant the bargaining power of buyers and the less significant the bargaining power of suppliers, the smaller the risk in the marketplace.

63. What is the purpose of a covenant?

a) To set a schedule of instalments by which the loan must be repaid.

b) To set out terms in a loan agreement, e.g., rate of interest.

c) To set an internal trigger which requires action on the part of the lender on the happening of a certain event.

d) To specify the manner in which a loan must be conducted and repaid.

64. All else being equal, what business would have the lowest credit risk?

a) A business with a current ratio of 1:1.

b) A business with a current ratio of 0.5:1.

c) A business with a current ratio of 2:1.

d) A business with a current ratio of 1.5:1.

65. Which business is most likely to have a gross margin of 100%?

a) Accounting firm.

b) Clothing store.

c) Car manufacturer.

d) Food wholesaler.

66. What is the most common reason for which businesses use creative accounting?

a) To falsely improve the appearance of company performance.

b) To become more competitive in the marketplace.

c) Creative accounting stands to make a company look better, and there is no downside to the practice.

d) The company doesn’t realise it is using creative accounting.

67. Which of the following actions is most likely to help mitigate the credit risk of a business that has potential environmental concerns?

a) Decrease the working capital financial covenant.

b) Loan covenants certifying compliance with the law.

c) Decrease insurance coverage requirements.

d) Increase the gearing financial covenant.

68. What action does the beneficiary need to take under a bank guarantee in case of default by the debtor?

a) He needs to request the money from the debtor.

b) He needs to notify the guarantor bank and request payment.

c) He needs to ask the guarantor bank to negotiate a settlement.

d) He only needs to wait for the guarantor bank to step in.

69. Identify one of the five management responsibilities.

a) Competitive intelligence.

b) Administration.

c) Production.

d) Market research.

70. What is the purpose of financial covenants in term loans?

a) They are used to give the borrower a credit rating.

b) Financial covenants provide additional legal protection to banks. In case of breach of covenant, the bank is able to foreclose on the loan early.

c) They help the borrower manage his finances.

d) They are a legal requirement and must be used in all loan relationships.

71. What is likely the most critical step in the overall projections process?

a) Construct a projected balance sheet, income (profit and loss) statement and cash flow statement.

b) Construct a revised projected balance sheet.

c) Setting meaningful forecast assumptions.

d) Consider the impact on your assumptions from potential changes in the competitive landscape, economic environment, management or operations of the business.

72. What is the principal reason that lenders do not easily accept security of intangible assets?

a) They are difficult to value and realise.

b) They are amortized, not depreciated.

c) They are not a working part of the business.

d) They do not physically exist.

73. Which statement is correct with respect to the divesting of holdings acquired under the Strategic Debt Restructuring Scheme (SDR)?

a) Creditors may divest their holdings back to the owners of the restructured company at the market price of the shares.

b) Creditors are required to hold their acquisition for at least 2 years to promote stability in the restructured company.

c) The buyer to whom the shares are divested must acquire at least 51% of the equity of the restructured company.

d) The account should continue to be classified for one year after divestment.

74. What is the main distinction between working capital and term finance products in India?

a) Rate of Interest.

b) Security.

c) Tenor.

d) Method of repayment.

75. Which statement describes a characteristic of equity?

a) If sufficient shareholders vote for it, dividends can be paid from any equity reserves except share capital.

b) Common stock is repayable only after all other legal obligations have been met in the event of liquidation.

c) It has senior rights to other creditors in the event of liquidation.

d) The par value is repayable any time if shareholders vote for it, but the premium paid above par value is never repayable.

76. What is meant by market overcapacity?

a) There is too much of a given product in the marketplace and there are too many businesses of a given type in the market.

b) There is too much of a given product in the marketplace or there are too many businesses of a given type in the market.

c) There is too much of a given product in the marketplace but not too many businesses of a given type in the market.

d) There are too many businesses of a given type in the market but not too much of a given product in the marketplace.